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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 26.06.2025 00:38

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

Have you ever had sex with your female cousin? How did it start?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why is the French way to say please is "S'il te plaît" and not "Pour Favour" like Spanish and Portuguese "Per Favor" and Italian "Per Favore" in the Romance languages group?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Was Michael Jackson really an innocent person?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.